Part 1: The Dangers of Orthodoxy



Was man originally created with an immortal soul, and do the souls of God’s people ascend to Heaven after death? To begin to question these things is not only to intrude upon widely-held beliefs but also our emotional responses over what occurs to us after death. However, do the Scriptures teach that man was created with an immortal soul? If not, what happens to our loved ones? Where are the church fathers? Where are the martyrs?

This is a doctrine that I have taught with conviction to children. The first song I wrote when working with children at a local church, entitled Heaven’s Streets of Gold, was composed to encourage children to seek Heaven as their ultimate destination. Thus, I fully embraced and taught others that an integral part of the ‘good news’ was that a saved soul ascends to Heaven after physical death. 

But it is evident now to me that the Bible does not teach this. The destination for the dead is not Heaven, either at death or resurrection. What changed my mind? I began to study the Scriptures on this matter more intently. In the past I assumed that a treasured doctrine defended by most denominations, and one defended throughout all of church history, must have actual biblical proof, even if I were not aware of it.

However, is it sufficient to accept something simply because of what others have believed and embraced in the past? Are their writings not to be compared with the exact wording found in the Bible? Should a specific church doctrine defended by the church fathers prohibit others from disagreeing because they have discovered something contrary? If so, then the Scriptures become of secondary value and the church fathers’ writings should be read in church services instead of the Bible.

Upon investigating the issue of ‘soul immortality’, I became increasingly alarmed not to find a single explicit reference in the Bible of ‘immortal soul’ or that souls ascend to Heaven at death. On the one hand, how can this cardinal doctrine be lacking in the Scriptures, and on the other hand – as I formerly did – be taught by many?

There are many ‘proof-texts’ used – most of which will hopefully be referred to in this essay – but even among these texts there seems to be no unequivocal statement of what is considered a fundamental doctrine (the most commonly used ‘proof-texts’ don’t even use the word ‘Heaven’). 

There are clear references to salvation by grace through faith, the Lordship of Jesus Christ, His substitutionary death, His resurrection, His continued intercession for His people as High Priest, His Second Coming, the forgiveness of sins, our resurrection, etc.; but no statement seems to explain, or even paraphrase, the doctrine of man’s soul going to Heaven at the point of death. Rather, I feel that the doctrine is assumed and several ‘proof-texts’ are suggested as touching upon this ‘truth’, and thus these verses are used to build upon a doctrine that was never biblically established in the first place.

Bearing in mind the reasonable claim that an absolute reference to the doctrine is elusive within the Bible, is it not alarming that most of the church consider it a fundamental part of the good news of Jesus Christ? Why is it the automatic response of many to defend the prevailing view instead of taking more time to consider the weight behind an alternative understanding? Why is the alternative view sometimes given the same response a cult doctrine would receive? 

It seems that the rule of thumb today is to judge the substance of a doctrine by setting it against the backdrop of its popularity within orthodox Christianity. The tendency to validate doctrines in this manner ought to generate more suspicion than when someone challenges the doctrine of going to Heaven. Why do we rush to defend a cherished viewpoint when our method of validating that viewpoint is at best questionable itself? 

God’s Word is not subject to a popularity contest when interpreting its doctrines. The revered saints from key moments in church history – justifiably or not – have been subject to these kinds of tests. Their acceptance within Christendom has been determined by the content of their teaching, but their popularity is no proof within itself that their teaching was biblical.

Calvin and Wesley would have disagreed on doctrines that are considered of importance to many in the faith, and yet few today would label either a ‘heretic’. Most people who subscribe to either extreme in the differing theologies of these men would not go as far as insulting their ‘opponents’ in this way. Why is this the case? Presumably it is because they agreed upon what are today considered to be ‘fundamentals’. The doctrine that involves man’s soul going to Heaven would, no doubt, be among these agreements. 

The continued lack of challenge to this view throughout church history has therefore created the potential for many to fear openly questioning it. It is not presented as a doctrine worth testing by Scripture and serious debate, and yet my own experiences lead me to believe that it is considered biblical because it is orthodox. This orthodoxy, in my view, causes us to impose doctrines upon biblical texts that do not concern the doctrine in question. 

In short, I am challenging the prevailing notion that a doctrine’s widespread acceptance – whether geographically or historically – is sufficient as a defence of the doctrine itself. The only respect in which I should be concerned with what Spurgeon had to say about ‘going to Heaven’ is the biblical evidence he used. The same can be said for any other revered name. 

In other words, what does the Bible say? Orthodoxy prevented all of God’s people, bar two, from entering the Promised Land. Orthodoxy led God’s people into captivity. Let us not assume that the church today is incapable of forming orthodox views at the expense of God’s truth. 

For do I now persuade men, or God? Or do I seek to please men? For if I still pleased men, I would not be a bondservant of Christ. (Galatians 1:10)

3 comments:

  1. Hi Trevor, I enjoy your blog. I am on the same page with you on the nature of man. One question I have for you.

    One verse that I would like you to comment on is 1st Corinthians 5:5.

    1 Corinthians 5:5 (NKJV)

    5 deliver such a one to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, that his spirit may be saved in the day of the Lord Jesus.

    How would you see Paul’s use of “his spirit” in this verse?

    It seems like he is making some comparison between "the flesh" and "his spirit" here in this verse. Flesh could refer to man’s carnal nature which does not obey the law of God or it could of course mean literal flesh, or the physical body.

    Knowing that the Scriptures as a whole do not teach that man has a ghost that survives death, how would you see “his spirit” being saved in the future on the Lord’s day?

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  2. Hi there. First of all, my apologies for taking so long to reply to your post. I wasn't expecting any comments so I hadn't been checking. Thank you for your kind words.

    My views on 1st Corinthians 5:5 are not dogmatic enough for me to feel confident enough to add an extra section to the blog.

    However, while I can't be certain of what Paul DOES mean by the verse, I can be certain of what he doesn't mean. In verse 3 he says the following:

    For I, on my part, though absent in body but present in spirit, have already judged him who has so committed this, as though I were present. (NASB)

    'Spirit' here cannot carry the popular connotation given to it by the mainstream church. The 'spirit' that supposedly resides in us and exists beyond our death is certainly not taught as having the ability to exit our bodies and travel to other cities and countries while our body still lives! So, when Paul tells the Corinthians that he is 'present in spirit' with them, he seems to be simply coining an expression that allows 'spirit' to have a somewhat vague (yet perfectly understandable) definition: 'I'm not there and, yet, in a sense, I AM there!'

    Perhaps this will allow us to view 'spirit' in this chapter as meaning something like this: more than simply flesh and bone.

    Though I strongly believe that every aspect of my life and consciousness is the result of physical processes, I also believe that it is natural to view thoughts, personality, character, etc, as 'non-physical'. As such, the complete 'me' becomes much more than what people can see. This is how I think 'spirit' could be understood in chapter 5.

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  3. This leads me to think that the discipline mentioned in verse 5 is a physical discipline, say a long-term sickness. The purpose of this punishment would be to lead the individual to repentance so that, in the day of the Lord Jesus, this man would be forgiven and saved.

    If this is correct, then the significance of the word 'spirit' is this: though the man's body has been judged severely (perhaps even to eventual death), he HIMSELF would be saved. I have used the word 'himself' as a replacement for 'spirit'. Though we are just flesh and bone that will return to dust, we have a hope of something that lies beyond that destiny: a resurrection to something better. This is a reality that cannot be seen by the human eye.

    Paul could not be seen to be there in Corinth, but his very real prayerful and practical involvement in the church's situation made it a REALITY that he was there. He was therefore in Corinth 'in spirit'. Likewise, the disciplined man of verse 5 may visibly have been deteriorating. His flesh was being destroyed. But, if repentant, the REALITY was that he was in line for salvation (resurrection) at the day of the Lord Jesus. His 'spirit' can therefore be seen to be parallel to Paul's use of the word in verse 3.

    That said, perhaps the punishment was not physical destruction of the actual body, but rather a handing-over of the individual to his sinful desires. The context of chapter 5 seems to be strongly focused on 'getting rid' of sin from the assembly. Perhaps Paul is just telling the Corinthian saints to get rid of this man. By having no part in the church community his hope would be taken from him and he would be left to face the reality of his sin alone. Perhaps it is through this discipline that his sinful (fleshly) desires would be destroyed, leading to repentance.

    At the moment I have too much difficulty with this interpretation. While I cannot argue with the text's assertion that the church must at times go as far as shunning a sinning brother, I do not see how the purpose of this is to lead the sinner to repentance. Rather, if I understand chapter 5 properly, the purpose of church discipline is to preserve the purity of the assembly. However, verse 5 clearly shows a cause-effect: the destruction of the man's flesh ought to lead him to repentance. I would think that sickness is more likely to lead to repentance than exclusion from an assembly. In the first instance he sees the effects of his sin, in the second instance he is handed over to that sin to indulge in it.

    This makes me think that (a) the man was excluded from the assembly for the sake of church purity, and (b) he was made sick ('destruction of the flesh') to lead him to repentance.

    However, I suppose the reality for us as interpreters is that we really don't know! If the man got sick, was it terminal? Is he the same man mentioned in 2nd Corinthians 2? If so, was he healed?

    Having studied 1st Corinthians with friends recently one of the most prominent lessons I have learned from the epistle is this: I needed to be a first-century Corinthian saint to have any chance of a full understanding of what Paul was saying! We can (and should) try to understand as much as we can of this letter. But in the end, after forming the best answers we can, we sometimes just have to say, 'I don't know'.

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